UPSC 2023 Prelims and UPSC 2023 Mains

 UPSC 2023 Prelims

As per the official notice by the UPSC, IAS Exam Prelims 2023 is scheduled for 5th June 2023. 

A few important points about CSE Prelims are briefly mentioned below:

It is the first stage of the UPSC Exam. 

It has two papers: GS-I and CSAT.

Both the papers are of objective type (MCQ).

GS 1 has 100 questions, while CSAT has 80. 

There is a provision of negative marking for each wrong answer. 

CSAT paper is of qualifying nature. Only those candidates passing with the minimum of 66 marks in this paper get their GS Paper 1 checked. 

Marks of both the prelims papers are not considered for the final merit list. 

UPSC 2023 Mains

The official examination calendar released by the UPSC has notified the date of UPSC 2023 Mains. The CSE Mains is scheduled from 16th September 2023 onwards. 

Learn about some important points about this stage of the UPSC exam, mentioned briefly below:

It is a theory-based paper. Therefore, unlike prelims where a candidate has to select the right answer out of the given options (MCQ); in mains examination, one has to write subjective answers. 

There are nine papers, out of which two language papers are of qualifying nature. 

A candidate has to secure at least 30 percent in Indian language paper and 25 percent in English Language paper, failing which the remaining papers (GS, Essay & Optional) are not evaluated. 

Marks scored in the language papers are not considered in the final evaluation.

The candidate has to select one optional subject from the list of 48 subjects listed by the Commission. There are two optional papers. (Please Note – Two Papers are based on the optional subject selected by the candidate).

While language papers are of 300 marks; the remaining seven papers are of 250 marks each. 

UPSC 2023 Interview

The dates of the UPSC 2022\3 personality test are not out. Only those candidates who will qualify mains examination would be summoned to take UPSC 2023 interview. Usually, the number of candidates who take the personality test is twice the number of vacancies allotted for that year. 

Learn about the process of the IAS Interview in the linked article, where we have given a detailed explanation about it, kinds of questions asked and guidance tips.

How do I prepare UPSC 2023 Prelims and UPSC 2023 mins examinations?

CSAT sample papers for prelims practice 2022 | UPSC CSAT2022 tips

• Decision Making & Problem-Solving
• Basic Numeracy (Class X Level)
• Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
• Interpersonal Skills including Communication Skills
• General Mental Ability
• Data Interpretation (Class X Level)
•  Reading Comprehensions

Study the paragraph and answer the questions that follow:-

The most important reason for this state of affairs, perhaps, is that India was the only country in the world to truly recognise the achievements of the Soviet Union-rather than merely focus on the debilitating faults that Communism brought to its people. The people of India realised that the achievement of one hundred percent literacy in a country much, much larger than its own and with similarly complicated ethnic and religious groupings, the rapid industrialization of a nation that was a primarily agrarian society when the Bolshevik revolution took place in 1917, the attendant revolutionary steps in science and technology, the accessibility of health care (primeval according to Western standards, perhaps, but not according to Indian ones) to the general population, and despite prohibition of the government of the time the vast outpourings in literature, music, art, etc. are momentous and remarkable feats in any country. In contrast, all that the West focused on were the massive human rights violations by the Soviet State on its people, the deliberate uprooting and mass migrations of ethnic peoples from one part of the country to another in the name of industrialization, the end of religion. In short, all the tools of information were employed to condemn the ideology of Communism, so much at variance with capitalist thinking. The difference with the Indian perception, I think here is, that while the Indians reacted as negatively to what the Soviet governments did to its people in the name of good governance (witness the imprisonment of Boris Pasternak and the formation of an international committee to put pressure for his release with Jawaharlal Nehru at its head), they took the pain not to condemn the people of that broad country in black and white terms; they understood that mingled in the shades of grey were grains of uniqueness (The Russians have never failed that characteristic in themselves; they have twice experimented with completely different ideologies, Communism and Capitalism both in the space of a century).

1.Which of the following statements according to the passage is correct?

a. India took heed of the weak faults of Russian policies and systems.

b. The process of industrialisation had already started when the Russian Revolution took place in 1917.

c. India seriously commended the achievements of Russia, i.e., hundred percent literacy and rapid industrialisation.

d. Literature, art and music received a setback during the communist regime in Russia.

2.The Indian perception of the Soviet Union was always

a. Neutral

b. Applauding

c. Counter-reactionary

d. Critical

3.The West did not focus on

a. Massive human rights violation of the Soviet state on its people.

b. Rapid growth of nuclear weapons in Russia.

c. Deliberate uprooting and mass migration of ethnic people in the name of industrialisation.

d. Both (a) and (c)

4.The passage is

a. Descriptive

b. Thought-provoking

c. Paradoxical

d. Analytical

1.Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

a. 5 min

b. 10 min

c. 4 min

d. 9 min

2. A man wants to reach a window which is 40 feet above the ground. The distance from the foot of the ladder to the wall is 9 feet. How long should the ladder be?

a. 81 feet

b. 40 feet

c. 41 feet

d. 54 feet

3.A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two of whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?

a. E’s daughter

b. G’s brother

c. F’s father

d. A’s son

4.Roy and Kavi are working on an assignment. Roy takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a computer, while Kavi takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?

a. 8 hours 15 minutes

b. 10 hours

c. 7 hours 50 minutes

d. 6 hours 40 minutes

5.A man can cover a distance in 1hr 24min by covering 2/3 of the distance at 4 km/h and the rest at 5km/h. What is the total distance to be covered?

a. 4 km

b. 6 km

c. 10 km

d. 8 km

6.Out of 130 students appearing in an exam, 62 failed in Science, 52 failed in English, whereas 24 failed in both Science and English. The number of students who passed is

a. 50

b. 20

c. 40

d. 30

7. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is a girl’s

a. Brother

b. Son

c. Nephew

d. Uncle

8. If TRANSFER is coded as RTNAFSRE, then ELEPHANT would be coded as

a. LEPEHATN

b. LEEPAHTN

c. LEPEAHTN

d. LEPEAHNT

9. A number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces.

1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343

a. 121

b. 244

c. 125

d. 81

10. All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet; therefore all athletes who do not cat a well-balanced diet are bad athletes.

The best conclusion from this statement is that

a. No bad athlete wants to win.

b. No athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.

c. Every athlete who eats a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.

d. All athletes who want to win are good athletes.