UPSC CSAT : September 2022

Thursday 29 September 2022

UPSC CSAT MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2023 Answer Key (1-20)

Questions : Reading Comprehension passages with questions and answers for upsc 2023 


1. Which of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage?

c) We need to devise a method of barring incompetence from public office

2. What is the methodology adopted in India to count the ‘poor’ debatable?

d) It is based on the proposition of poverty as meagre income or buying capacity.

3. Why is income poverty only one measure of counting the ‘poor’?

a) It talks of only one kind of deprivation ignoring all others.

4. What does the author mean by ‘poverty of a life’?

a) All deprivations in a human life which stem not only from lack of income but lack of real opportunities.

5. X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many would the first one pass the other (the start-off is not counted as passing)?

b) 3

6. If the order of the letters in the English alphabet is reversed and each letter represents the letter whose position it occupies, then which one of the following represents ‘LUCKNOW’?

d) OFXPMLD

7. In a tournament of chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire tournament?

c) 149

8. How many 3-digits natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and the number is divisible by 5?

b) 12

9. Consider the Question and two Statements given below:

Question: Is x an integer?

Statement 1: x/3 is not an integer.

Statement 2: 3x is an integer.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?

d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Saturday 24 September 2022

UPSC CSAT MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2023 | UPSC CSAT 2023 MODEL QUESTION PAPER AND ANSWER KEY DOWNLOAD

Passage-2

How best can the problems of floods and droughts be addressed so that the losses are minimal and the system becomes resilient? In this context, one important point that needs to be noted is that India gets too much water (about 75% of annual precipitation) during 120 days (June to September) and 'too little' for the remaining 245 days. This skewed water availability has to be managed and regulated for its consumption throughout the year.

53. Which one of the following best reflects the practical, rational and lasting solution?

a) Constructing huge concrete storage tanks and canals across country

b) Changing the cropping patterns and farming practices

c) Interlinking of rivers across the country

d) Buffer stocking of water through dams and recharging aquifers

54. If 15 x 14 x 13 x ... x 3 x 2 x 1 = 3m x n where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of m?

a) 7

b) 6

c) 5

d) 4

55. What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X ?

a) 248

b) 252

c) 258

d) 262 

56. One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to be used in forming passwords, such that each password has to start with a vowel and end with a consonant. How many such passwords can be generated?

a) 105

b) 525

c) 945

d) 1050

57. There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal numbers of rows and columns out of which 6 cups contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so that each row should contain at least one cup of coffee?

a) 18

b) 27

c) 54

d) 81

58. The sum of three consecutive integers is equal to their product. How many such possibilities are there?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) Only three

d) No such possibility is there

59. What is the number of numbers of the form 0. XY, where X and Y are distinct non-zero digits?

a) 72

b) 81

c) 90

d) 100

60. The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B. What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F ?

a) 40.5 kg

b) 40.8 kg

c) 41 kg

d) Cannot be determined as data is inadequate

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage 1

For two or three generations past, ever increasing number of individuals have been living as workers merely, not as human beings. An excessive amount of labor is rule today in every circle of society, with the result that man’s spiritual element cannot thrive. He finds it very difficult to spend his little leisure in serious activities. He does not want to think; or he cannot even if he wants to. He seeks not self - improvement, but entertainment that would enable him to be mentally idle and to forget his usual activities. Therefore, the socalled culture of our age is dependent on cinema than on theater, more on newspaper, magazines and crime stories than on serious literature.

61. The passage is based on the idea that

Friday 23 September 2022

UPSC CSAT MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2023 | upsc csat test series 2023 | FREE UPSC CSAT TEST SERIES 2023

 Directions for the following three items

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to this item should be based on the passages only.

Passage 1

In an economic organisation, allowing mankind to benefits by the productivity of machines should lead to a very good life of leisure and much leisure is apt to be a tedious expect to those who have intelligent activities and interest. if a leisured population is to be happy, it must be an educated population, and must be educated with a view to enjoyment as well as to see the direction usefulness of technical knowledge.

41. Which of the following statements best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?

a) Only and educated population can best make use of a benefits of the economic progress.

b) All economic development should be aimed at the creation of the leisure

c) An increase in the educated population of a country leads to an increase in the happiness of the people

d) Use of machine should be encouraged in order to create a large Leisured population

Passage 2

If presence bring less thrill now that we are grown up, perhaps it is because we have too much already; or perhaps it is because we have lost the fullness of the joy of giving, and with it the fullness of a joy of receiving children's fear are poignant and their mistakes are acute, but they do not look too forward not too far backward. Their joys are clear and complete, because they have not yet learnt always to add 'but' to very proposition. Perhaps we are too cautious, to anxious, to sceptical. Perhaps some of our cares would shrink if we thought less about them and entered with more single-minded enjoyment into the happiness that Come our way.

42. with reference to the passage, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) it is not possible for adults to feet thrilled by presents.

b) There can be more than one reason why adults feel less 3 thrilled by presents.

c) The Author does not know why the adults feel less thrilled by presents.

d) adults have less capacity to feel the joy of loving or being loved.

43. The author of the passage is against

a) Worrying too much about the past and future

b) Being in the habit of thinking about presents

c) Not being thrilled by new things

d) Giving and receiving joy only partially

44. Let A, B and C represent distinct non-zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetition.

Thursday 22 September 2022

CSAT 2023 Question Paper and solution PDF download (70-80) | UPSC CSAT 2023 Question Paper and solution PDF download

 70. Six lectures A, B, C, D, E, and F, each of one hour duration, are scheduled between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. 

Consider the Question and two statements given below :

Question : Which lecture is in the third period?

Statement-1 : Lecture F is preceded by A and follow by C.

Statement-2 : There is no lecture after lecture B.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?

a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

The majority of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, are generally, easily influenced by the opinions of others. They permit the newspapers and the gossiping neighbours to do their thinking for them.

Opinions are the cheapest commodities on the earth. Everyone has a flock of opinions ready to be wished upon by anyone who will accept them. If you are influenced by opinions when you reach decisions, you will not succeed in any undertaking.

71. Which one of the following is implied by the passage?

a) Most of the people do not accumulate money for their needs.

b) Most of the people never fail to accumulate money for their needs.

c) There are people who fail to accumulate money for their needs.

d) There is no need to accumulate money.

72. What is the main idea of the passage?

a) People should not be influenced by the opinions of others.

b) People should accumulate as much money as they can.

c) People should neither give nor accept the opinions.

d) People will succeed in any undertaking if they, do not accept any opinion at all.

Passage-2

"The social order is a sacred right which is the basis of all other rights. Nevertheless, this right does not come from nature, and must therefore be founded on conventions."

73. With reference to the above passage,

which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1) Conventions are the sources of rights of man.

2) Rights of man can be exercised only when there is a social order.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 


74. Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number of voters in the voters list?

Wednesday 21 September 2022

CSAT 2023 Question Paper and solution PDF download | UPSC CSAT 2023 Question Paper and solution PDF download

 Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

PASSAGE

In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Neither new strains nor fancy agrochemicals are raising the yields. Nor is there much unfarmed land left that is suitable to be brought under the plough. If global temperature continues to rise, some places will become unsuitable for farming. Application of 15 can help overcome these problems. J Agricultural technology is changing fast. Much of this change is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas. Techniques developed in the West are being adapted in some places to make tropical crops more Co productive. Technology is of little use if it is not adapted. In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification. Extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today's agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. So would things like better roads and storage facilities, to allow for the carriage of surpluses to markets and reduce wastage.

31. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1) Development of agricultural technology is confined to developed countries.

2) Agricultural technology is not adapted in developing countries.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Tuesday 20 September 2022

CSAT 2022 Question Paper and solution PDF download | UPSC CSAT 2022 Question Paper and solution PDF download

 Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

The main threat to maintaining progress in human development comes from the increasingly evident unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on fossil fuels. We now know that this is unsustainable because the resources are finite. The close link between economic growth and greenhouse gas emission needs to be severed for human development to become truly sustainable. Some developed countries have begun to alleviate the worst effects by expanding recycling and investing in public transport and infrastructure. But most developing countries are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy sources. Developed countries need to support developing countries’ transition to sustainable human development.

21. Unsustainability in production pattern is due to which of the following?

1. Heavy dependence on fossil fuels

2. Limited availability of resources

3. Expansion of recycling

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

22. Consider the following statements:

Developed countries can support developing countries’ transition to sustainable human development by

1. Making clean energy sources available at low cost

2. Providing loans for improving their public transport at nominal interest rates

3. Encouraging them to change their production and consumption patterns

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Passage-2

Unless the forces and tendencies which are responsible for destroying the country’s environment and afforestation of denuded areas is taken up on a massive scale, the harshness of the climatic conditions and soil erosion by wind and water will increase to such an extent that agriculture, which is the mainstay of our people, will gradually become impossible. The desert countries of the world and our own desert areas in Rajasthan are a grim reminder of the consequences of largescale deforestation. Pockets of desert-like landscape are now appearing in other parts of the country including Sutlej-Ganga Plains and the Deccan Plateau. Where only a few decades back there used to be lush green forests with perennial streams and springs, there is only brown earth, bare of vegetation, without any water in the streams and springs except in the rainy season.

23. According to the passage given above, deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to which of the following?

Reading Comprehension passages with questions and answers for upsc 2023

Directions for the following 4 (four) items

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage 1

In simple matters like shoe - making we think only a specially trained person will serve our purpose, but in politics we presume that everyone knows how to get votes knows how to administer a State. When we are ill, we call for a trained physician, whose degree is a guarantee of specific preparation and technical competence – we don’t ask for the handsomest physician, or the most eloquent one; well then, when the whole state is ill should we not look for the service and guidance of the wisest and the best?

1. Which of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage?

a) We assume that in a democracy, any politician is qualified to administer a state.

b) Politicians should be selected from those trained in administration

c) We need to devise a method of barring incompetence from public office

d) As voters select their administrators, the eligibility of politicians to administer a state cannot be questioned.

Passage 2

The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. It is only because of its extremely narrow definition of ‘who is poor’ and the debatable methodology used to count the poor, but also because of a major fundamental assumption underlying it. It exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power. No one can better categorize it by calling it income poverty. If poverty is ultimate about depravations affecting human well – being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it. Poverty of life, in our view, lies not merely in the impoverished state in which the person actually lives but also in the lack of real opportunity given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances – to choose other type of living. Even the relevance of the low income, meagre possessions, and other aspects of what are standardly seen as economic poverty relate ultimately to their role in severely restricting the choices of people have lead variable and valued lives.

2. What is the methodology adopted in India to count the ‘poor’ debatable?

a) There is some confusion regrading what should constitute the poverty line.

b) There are wide diversities in the condition of the rural and urban poor.

c) There is no uniform global standard for measuring income poverty

d) It is based on the proposition of poverty as meagre income or buying capacity.

3. Why is income poverty only one measure of counting the ‘poor’?

a) It talks of only one kind of deprivation ignoring all others.

b) Other deprivations in a human life have nothing to do with lack of purchasing power. 

c) Income poverty is not a permanent condition, it changes from time to time.

d) Income poverty restricts human condition from time to time.

4. What does the author mean by ‘poverty of a life’?

a) All deprivations in a human life which stem not only from lack of income but lack of real opportunities.

b) Improvised state of poor people in rural and urban areas.

c) Missed opportunities in diverse personal circumstances.

d) Material as well as non-material deprivations in a human life which restrict human choices permanently.

5. X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many would the first one pass the other (the start-off is not counted as passing)?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

6. If the order of the letters in the English alphabet is reversed and each letter represents the letter whose position it occupies, then which one of the following represents ‘LUCKNOW’?

a) OGXPMLD

b) OGXQMLE

c) OFXPMLE

d) OFXPMLD

7. In a tournament of chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire tournament?

a) 151

b) 150

c) 149

d) 148

8. How many 3-digits natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and the number is divisible by 5?

Where can I see the UPSC NDA II 2022 written exam result? | UPSC NDA II 2022 written exam result

UPSC NDA II 2022 Written Exam Result for 400 Post

 Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has released the advertisement for National Defence Academy & Naval Academy Exam II 2022.

UPSC NDA 2 result 2022 declared; here's direct link 

https://upsc.gov.in/exams-related-info/final-result

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has announced the result of the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2022 today.

UPSC conducted General Studies Paper 4, as part of the Civil Services Main Exam 2022 on 18-09-2022. There were 12 questions divided into two sections – A .

Union Public Service Commission has released the UPSC National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II) 2022 result on September 19.

NDA Result 2022: Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has declared the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II) result on September 19


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Where can I download the UPSC CSE Main 2022 question paper? | UPSC CSE Main 2022 question paper Download

UPSC has released question papers of Civil Services (Main) Examination 2022 that are available on the Commission's website upsc.gov.in.

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has released the question papers of Civil Services (Main) Examination 2022. Question papers of various subjects are available on the Commission’s website upsc.gov.in.

UPSC CSE Mains Examination 2022 Schedule Direct Link : https://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/TT-CSM2022-Eng_02082022.pdf

General Studies I : https://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/QP-CSM-22-GENERAL-STUDIES-PAPER%20I-190922.pdf

General Studies II : https://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/QP-CSM-22-GENERAL-STUDIES-PAPER-II-190922.pdf

General Studies III : https://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/QP-CSM-22-GENERAL-STUDIES-PAPER-III-190922.pdf

General Studies IV : https://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/QP-CSM-22-GENERAL-STUDIES-PAPER%20IV-190922.pdf

Essay : https://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/QP-CSM-22-ESSAY-190922.pdf

How Do I Download UPSC CSE Main 2022 question papers?

Step 1: Visit the official website of UPSC at upsc.gov.in

Step 2: Go to exams and then active exams

Step 3: Select Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2022

Step 4: Under the question paper tab, click on the question paper you want to check

Step 5: Download PDF file

The exam was conducted from September 16 to September 25 in two shifts. The first shift papers were conducted from 9 am to 12 noon. The second shift started at 2 pm and lasted till 5 pm.

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Monday 19 September 2022

Will there be UPSC CSAT Paper II exam in 2023? | Why UPSC aspirants often ask that "Paper II CSAT will be removed in the coming year". ? | UPSC CSAT QUERIES

 Why UPSC aspirants often ask that "Paper II CSAT will be removed in the coming year".

Will there be UPSC exam in 2023?

As per the UPSC calendar 2023, the Civil Services Preliminary examination will be conducted on May 28, 2023.

What is CSAT paper in UPSC?

CSAT or Civil Services Aptitude Test is one out of the two papers included in the UPSC prelims examination. It comprises questions to test the analytical ability, interpersonal skills and reasoning ability of candidates.

Is CSAT of UPSC difficult?

Even though you only need to score 33% marks in CSAT Paper- II, it can become a little difficult given the unpredictability of UPSC. We take the example of CSAT 2014. In 2014, the level of CSAT was a quantum jump from earlier years. Even scoring 100 seemed a difficult task for aspirants.

How many CSAT are there in UPSC?

There are two papers in UPSC Prelims- General Studies-1 and General Studies-2 (CSAT). General Studies has 100 questions whereas CSAT has 80 questions. Each paper carries 200 mark, and there will be ⅓ negative marking.

Who are eligible for CSAT exam?

CSAT (Paper II) is only a qualifying paper and a minimum of 33% marks are required to be eligible for clearing the UPSC Preliminary Exam. The final selection is based on the marks of Paper I only, given the candidate has scored 33% in the CSAT (Paper II).

Do people fail in CSAT?

Yes several students fail in CSAT despite their good performance in Paper-I.

How can I pass CSAT?

Keep every Sunday for CSAT practice and solve some questions from the numerous mock question papers found in the book. Candidates who are struggling with the CSAT paper should practice at least 1 hour daily. This can be reduced to weekly 3-4 hours or 1 mock paper per week depending on your requirement.

Can I skip Maths in CSAT?

By the Maths questions in the CSAT, your basic Ability to Accuracy and calculation will be judged. For this you need not do any special study on Maths, neither you need to have a Maths background.

Can I qualify CSAT with without Maths?

Monday 12 September 2022

How Do I Prepare UPSC GS PAPPER II 2023? | UPSC CSAT 2023

CSAT or Civil Services Aptitude Test is the second paper in the UPSC Prelims. Officially, it is known as General Studies Paper-II.

The CSAT exam pattern for UPSC:

Number of questions: 80 Objective-Type (MCQ) questions

Negative Marking: Yes (1/3rd of the maximum marks for the question)

Time: 2 hours

Maximum Marks: 200

CSAT qualifying marks: 66 marks (33% qualifying criteria)

CSAT Syllabus – GS Paper II – UPSC Prelims 2023

The CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) syllabus for UPSC 2023 .

  1. Comprehension
  2. Interpersonal skills including communication skills
  3. Logical reasoning and analytical ability
  4. Decision-making and problem-solving
  5. General mental ability
  6. Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency, etc. – Class X level)

Best books for CSAT 2023 (GS Paper II):

  • CSAT Paper – 2 Manual by TMH
  • Analytical Reasoning – M. K. Pandey
  • Verbal & Non-Verbal Reasoning – R. S. Aggarwal

However, since the CSAT exam in UPSC CSE was made qualifying in 2015, candidates need to score only 33% to qualify for Mains, provided they score above the cut off in UPSC Prelims – GS Paper I. 

The qualifying nature and the level X standard questions in CSAT mean that serious candidates do not need to memorise or go through multiple books.

First, all candidates should try to solve UPSC previous year question papers for CSAT and then decide on a preparation strategy.

CSAT marking scheme:

Sunday 11 September 2022

UPSC 2023 Prelims and UPSC 2023 Mains

 UPSC 2023 Prelims

As per the official notice by the UPSC, IAS Exam Prelims 2023 is scheduled for 5th June 2023. 

A few important points about CSE Prelims are briefly mentioned below:

It is the first stage of the UPSC Exam. 

It has two papers: GS-I and CSAT.

Both the papers are of objective type (MCQ).

GS 1 has 100 questions, while CSAT has 80. 

There is a provision of negative marking for each wrong answer. 

CSAT paper is of qualifying nature. Only those candidates passing with the minimum of 66 marks in this paper get their GS Paper 1 checked. 

Marks of both the prelims papers are not considered for the final merit list. 

UPSC 2023 Mains

The official examination calendar released by the UPSC has notified the date of UPSC 2023 Mains. The CSE Mains is scheduled from 16th September 2023 onwards. 

Learn about some important points about this stage of the UPSC exam, mentioned briefly below:

It is a theory-based paper. Therefore, unlike prelims where a candidate has to select the right answer out of the given options (MCQ); in mains examination, one has to write subjective answers. 

There are nine papers, out of which two language papers are of qualifying nature. 

A candidate has to secure at least 30 percent in Indian language paper and 25 percent in English Language paper, failing which the remaining papers (GS, Essay & Optional) are not evaluated. 

Marks scored in the language papers are not considered in the final evaluation.

The candidate has to select one optional subject from the list of 48 subjects listed by the Commission. There are two optional papers. (Please Note – Two Papers are based on the optional subject selected by the candidate).

While language papers are of 300 marks; the remaining seven papers are of 250 marks each. 

UPSC 2023 Interview

The dates of the UPSC 2022\3 personality test are not out. Only those candidates who will qualify mains examination would be summoned to take UPSC 2023 interview. Usually, the number of candidates who take the personality test is twice the number of vacancies allotted for that year. 

Learn about the process of the IAS Interview in the linked article, where we have given a detailed explanation about it, kinds of questions asked and guidance tips.

How do I prepare UPSC 2023 Prelims and UPSC 2023 mins examinations?